I wrote a (very long) blog post about those viral math problems and am looking for feedback, especially from people who are not convinced that the problem is ambiguous.
It’s about a 30min read so thank you in advance if you really take the time to read it, but I think it’s worth it if you joined such discussions in the past, but I’m probably biased because I wrote it :)
No, you can’t prove that some notation is correct and an alternative one isn’t. It’s all just convention.
Maths is pure logic. Notation is communication, which isn’t necessarily super logical. Don’t mix the two up.
I never said any of it wasn’t correct. It’s all correct, just depends on what notation is used in your country as to what’s correct in your country.
No, it’s all defined. In Australia we use the obelus, which by definition is division. In European countries they use colon, which by definition in those countries means division. 1+1=2 by definition. If you wanna say 1+1=2 is just a convention then you don’t understand how Maths works at all.
What you are saying is like saying “there’s no such things as dictionaries, there are no definitions, only conventions”.
Don’t mix up super logical Maths notation with “communication” - it’s all defined (just like words which are used to communicate are defined in a dictionary, except Maths definitions don’t evolve - we can see the same definitions being used more than 100 years ago. See Lennes’ letter).
Yeah, and when you read a paper that contains math, you won’t see a declaration about what country’s notation is used for things that aren’t defined. So it’s entirely possible that you don’t know how some piece of notation is supposed to be interpreted immediately.
Of course if there’s ambiguity like that, only one interpretation is correct and it should be easy to figure out which one, but that’s not guaranteed.